I agree with both your perspectivees.
If one considers Muhammad to be a descendant of those colonies, then yes.
Perhaps what should be established (the world over, as well as here), is what criteria that should be used to distinguish the literal from the metaphor.
I think what is being played out here, is a classic case of "one thing has little or nothing to do with the other."
If Muhammad's daughter was "Kemetic" (how so, when she was born on Arabian soil, and did not speak Kemau, but Kufic Arabic?), then how is Muhammad himself (born in the very same place) not to be deemed as such?
Further, Fatimah and her husbands followers ventured into Kemet sometime later after her father's passing.
Venturing into and claiming a land, especially whilst there are already others dwelling there, does not make you a native, it makes you an invader--even if you are Black like the natives there are.
Not at all. Quite the opposite, actually. I've found that both popular Judeo-Christian and Islamic thought have a nasty habit of twisting the Sheba story around, especially in the interest of making Solomon look far superior to Sheba.
Here, we have history, and on the other hand, we have just the story. In honor of what was asked above, which do we take as literal, and which otherwise?
If the differentiation applies to geographical boundaries, then I'd at least partially agree.
Howver, if we are talking in an etymological fashion, then I'd have to disagree, since "Kemet" means "land of the Blacks". Are not all the people you mention here below (see next quote) Black African people?
If so, then any land that they natively and indigenously inhabited, should by all logic be called "Kemet", even if the national distinction could very well be made.
Different from whom? Certainly not each other, for these are the same people, speaking nearly the same language (dialects not withstanding), practicing the same culture, and inhabiting the same region(s)....The only difference is that they called themselves different things at different times.
Or did they? :?:
OK, so with perhaps the exception of the Hyksos issue, we are in agreement here.
if the bible (judiasm and christianity both) are plagiarized from misinterpretations of older kemetian doctrines...how could muhammad be credible?
I agree with this as well. Again, one thing has nothing to do with another.
I have often wondered why Muhammad would choose the Abrahamic route instead of the Kemetic one, when seeking to establish his religious decree......It has been surmised that he did so, because the Judeo-Christian theology had become so prevelant in the region at the time, and thus needed a foothold in order to compete with them.
To choose the Kemetic route (which is actually where "ALLAH" comes from; a deity that derived from a pantheon of cosmological theology), would have taken whatever credibility he sought to gain away from his cause.
PEACE
NIBS said:thus, other than the kush-axum empire colonies in yemen...is there any substance to the claim that muhammad was african?
If one considers Muhammad to be a descendant of those colonies, then yes.
OMO said:The problem I have here is with what people now are trying to determine what is to be taken literal and what is not.
You label that which you disagree with and "not literal" but then take as literal that which supports your "kemetic" (i.e. "Hamitic") bias.
Perhaps what should be established (the world over, as well as here), is what criteria that should be used to distinguish the literal from the metaphor.
In the development of Al-Islam, his daughter Fatimah certainly was "Egyptian" (i.e. "Kemetic") and her followers formed a Caliphate that was centered in "Kemet" while Muhammad's "caller to the Faith", Bilal, was no doubt AFRICAN.
I think what is being played out here, is a classic case of "one thing has little or nothing to do with the other."
If Muhammad's daughter was "Kemetic" (how so, when she was born on Arabian soil, and did not speak Kemau, but Kufic Arabic?), then how is Muhammad himself (born in the very same place) not to be deemed as such?
Further, Fatimah and her husbands followers ventured into Kemet sometime later after her father's passing.
Venturing into and claiming a land, especially whilst there are already others dwelling there, does not make you a native, it makes you an invader--even if you are Black like the natives there are.
I guess folks also will say that there was no Makeda (i.e. the Queen of Sheba) even though Sabeanism developed and was centered in Saba, which was an extension of the Axumite empire.
Not at all. Quite the opposite, actually. I've found that both popular Judeo-Christian and Islamic thought have a nasty habit of twisting the Sheba story around, especially in the interest of making Solomon look far superior to Sheba.
Here, we have history, and on the other hand, we have just the story. In honor of what was asked above, which do we take as literal, and which otherwise?
This is one weakness in the Nile Valley hypothesis. It tends to lump together as one or deny the facts concerning that not ALL Africans in Upper and or Lower "Egypt" were "kemetic".
If the differentiation applies to geographical boundaries, then I'd at least partially agree.
Howver, if we are talking in an etymological fashion, then I'd have to disagree, since "Kemet" means "land of the Blacks". Are not all the people you mention here below (see next quote) Black African people?
If so, then any land that they natively and indigenously inhabited, should by all logic be called "Kemet", even if the national distinction could very well be made.
Sabeans, Ethiopians, Axumites, Cush-ites, Nubians, and the folks from Punt (Puanit) were and continue to be quite seperate people culturally, linguistically and spiritually.
Different from whom? Certainly not each other, for these are the same people, speaking nearly the same language (dialects not withstanding), practicing the same culture, and inhabiting the same region(s)....The only difference is that they called themselves different things at different times.
Or did they? :?:
As I have stated before, he was at the least "Afro-Asiatic" as were/are ALL so-called "Arabs" (which originally was applied to folks that occupied the Arabian Peninsula, which was an extention of the Ethiopian empire of Piankhi and Shabaka, much later after the decline of "kemet"). Furthermore, before even mentioning the Hyksos or other "invaders" it might serve best to take a closer look into Sesostris, during the 12th dynasty, the process of empire building which stressed into Colchis and the Arabian Gulf...
OK, so with perhaps the exception of the Hyksos issue, we are in agreement here.
if the bible (judiasm and christianity both) are plagiarized from misinterpretations of older kemetian doctrines...how could muhammad be credible?
NIBS said:how can "god" or "gabriel" re-reveal what was never true???
adam and eve? never true. cain & able? never true? noah? the entire meaning if that story is destroyed...thus untrue.
the bible is historically inaccurate thus a doctrine that claims it is a confirmation of the bible cannot be accurate...
none of the abrahamic faiths have any crediblity...
feel free to continue ignoring me...
even if black moors ruled the world, this does not make muhammad a prophet of god...a mystery god no less...
I agree with this as well. Again, one thing has nothing to do with another.
I have often wondered why Muhammad would choose the Abrahamic route instead of the Kemetic one, when seeking to establish his religious decree......It has been surmised that he did so, because the Judeo-Christian theology had become so prevelant in the region at the time, and thus needed a foothold in order to compete with them.
To choose the Kemetic route (which is actually where "ALLAH" comes from; a deity that derived from a pantheon of cosmological theology), would have taken whatever credibility he sought to gain away from his cause.
PEACE