Black Spirituality Religion : KJV Bible of Egyptian / African origin

Discussion in 'Black Spirituality / Religion - General Discussion' started by Music Producer, May 7, 2007.

  1. Music Producer

    Music Producer Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    KJV Bible of Egyptian / African origin:

    Peace and Greetings;

    Throughout my studies I have come across more blacks that have been prejudiced against the Old Testament and Holy Scriptures then whites. This is because white teach black people to reject the Old Testament for either the New Testament or some concepts of Osiris, Isis or Ra….etc. The point is white people do this because they know and understand that once a specific bloodline of African peoples who are scattered in the earth return to the Supreme Being they will move to the position of reigning in the earth.

    As I studied and meditated on the Specific Word of GOD and looked at the Hebrew and Egyptian linguistics I discovered or was induced with a punishing question for white Jews who simply ignore the question and have no answer. I would also like to put this question to all members of the board who have been brainwashed to believe the Old Testament and Holy Scriptures are not of Egyptian or African origin.

    In these passages…………………….


    Isa:8:8: And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel.

    Isa:8:10: Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for God is with us.


    In the Hebrew Script and any other written linguistics at the time there is absolutely no distinction between a name and a saying. This is one of the main reasons as linguistics evolved names of people and places stopped having a syntactic meaning.

    The Egyptian written Hieroglyphs was and is the only linguistic tongue that had a method of distinguishing between words being expressed as a name and it being expressed as a saying. This method was called the Egyptian Name Ring. The Egyptian Name Ring was highly utilized and was the only way to understand when to know how and when to express specific words orally and how they should be spoken as apposed to contextual expression.

    In the Hebrew Script “Immanuel” and “God is with us” is written exactly, exactly the same way.

    Thus the question becomes………………

    How did the renders of the so-called Hebrew Script know when and how to express “Immanuel” as opposed to “God is with us”?

    The only answer I could perceive is they had to have been looking at an Egyptian Name Ring. They translated “Immanuel” as it was inside of the Egyptian Name Ring. And when “Immanuel” was not in a Name Ring they knew to express it as “God is with us”.

    This proves that there is and was an original Egyptian Bible in existence at least as late as the English or Gregorian translation of the Old Testament.

    Otherwise all the people that reject the idea of the Old Testament and Holy Scriptures being of Egyptian / African origin please explain the question.

    Peace.
     
  2. ShemsiEnTehuti

    ShemsiEnTehuti Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    Are you serious?

    This is almost too ridiculous to comment on....it is absurd, preposterous, and the logic is so elementary to make a connection between Egypt and the KJV Bible that I question whether a critical thinker could even produce something like this without trying to make people laugh.
     
  3. ShemsiEnTehuti

    ShemsiEnTehuti Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    The Old Testament has nothing to do with Africa or its people, especially Egypt. Yes, some of it comes out of Egypt, but it is so distorted in meaning and purpose that it is only foolish to look to it for any African insight.

    The Bible is like the N-word. They both have been affected by our African presence, but they are not from us. For example, "Neg-Ar" was a name associated with the people and the great River Nile, particularly in Egypt and Nubia meaning people of the "Great/Divine River".

    [​IMG]
    [​IMG]

    When the Romans took over the Greek empire invading Egypt, they were met by the African peoples along the Nile with stiff resistance. This term evolved into "niger" in Latin for the Romans, and subsequently was associated with the blackness of the people. In Latin, "niger" became the derogatory word for blackness. Later this became the root for the words "negro" and of course the N-word.

    Considering the etymology of the N-word, would you then be so foolish to say that it came from Africans? It would be a preposterous claim. When it comes to the Old Testament, it was written in the same way. It was simply the strong African presence that the Hebrews attempted to copy which is why some of it appears to be familiar, so how could you claim this as an African work when it is so divergent from any African source in the Nile Valley?
     
  4. ShemsiEnTehuti

    ShemsiEnTehuti Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    I am taking this a piece at a time. Your logic here is so elementary, that I don't see how you could have "meditated" very much on it. In fact, it doesn't require meditation at all, it is called basic reading comprehension. One of those things is context. Many words in Arabic and Hebrew mean different things depending on the context it is used. One context clue Jews knew to say "Immanuel" as a name, instead of "God is with us" as a statement is the word "O" that comes just before. That is a redundant indicator all throughout Biblical scripture that the name of someone important was to come after. Most of the time, it is "O Lord", but in I Kings 12:16, I Chronicles 12:18, and II Chronicles 10:16 you will find the phrase, "O David".




    I'm sorry MusicProducer, but you haven't proved anything. You haven't even shown a shred of evidence to support circulation of an Egyptian Bible, with respects to the Hebrew Bible, ever existing let alone existing all the way up to the English translation of the Bible.

    I wanted to ignore this thread all together, but I feared that someone else would come along not well grounded in their African heritage and be swayed by this continued horse-poo about the Bible and the Hebrews that has nothing to do with African people.
     
  5. kemetkind

    kemetkind Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    inconsistent?

    MP after you've answered ShemsiEnTehuti can you explain why in this thread you imply Immanuel means biblically "God is with us" while in other threads you've said Immanuel is one of five names of satan? (the other four being Jesus, Lucifer, Nebuchadnezzar, Morning star, etc.)
     
  6. Keita Kenyatta

    Keita Kenyatta going above and beyond PREMIUM MEMBER

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    For someone who does not know "WHO" wrote the first so called books of Moses and "who" the European was that wrote 9 of the books in the New Testament, who commissioned him to do it and when....you sure place a lot of weight on this Bible! Why won't I tell you the answer?....Cause to keep it real, you deserve to do all the work you are doing and then some! Clue: "The first five books were written specifically for Black people!" Next question: "who and why and when?" Good Luck !
     
  7. emanuel goodman

    emanuel goodman Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    Emanu el or el is with us reading from right to left the way and flow of neter

    mr music back to your old tricks. you do not overstand please study more. Just to comment el is from eloheem a jewish term(developed by the levitical priest for the neteru or the neters or sum call annunaki. It means that el is with us( el being one el or being and elhoeem being the plural. Just like in the old hebrew testament torah . It states in GENE ISIS (geneology of isis) and the eloheem said let us make man in our own
    image. Have you taken look at the latin or greek translations in thier you would find the truth before the skakespearian perversions that should lead u on the right track.
     
  8. Music Producer

    Music Producer Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    Daaaaaaaaa?

    So when is one of you going to answer, explain or discredit the first question of the thread?
     
  9. ShemsiEnTehuti

    ShemsiEnTehuti Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    Brother, I already picked apart your whole thread point by point...what more do you want? I have shown you why your premises are completely fallacious and off base. The burden of proof is on you to defend your premises further by addressing my concerns accordingly.
     
  10. Music Producer

    Music Producer Well-Known Member MEMBER

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    LOL and LOL so, so funnnnny

    Peace and Greetings;

    LOL, LOL and LOL so hard that my stomach is cramping………………….

    The “O” is only unique to English translations. It ain’t even in the Hebrew Script.

    You are so, so, so funny.

    In the Hebrew Script in Isaiah 8:8 the Hebrew word just before “Immanuel” is “ar-tz-d” which equals “Land”.

    If you don’t believe me look at this interlinear web page that has the Hebrew and English and compare 8:8 and 8:10.

    http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1008.htm

    Sorry to bust your bubble but I know you ain’t going to address the question because I have asked rabbis and white Jews this and they are all stumped. What we have here is a big time screw-up by the renders of the Bible that reveals they had to have been translating from Egyptian Hieroglyphs. Or maybe it is not a screw-up but a revelation from GOD.

    You ain’t done jack but make yourself look bad and revealed your lack of knowledge as to the Hebrew Scripture and even with your lack of knowledge you continue to simply gibber-gabber in hope that someone will believe you are this initiate immaculate teacher of wisdom, daaaaaaaaaaa, LOL again.

    Go ahead give it another shot!

    I will wait for you to exhaust all of your straw-grabbing until you finally realize that the answer I gave is the only explanation.

    I will give you some time to meditate.

    Peace.
     
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