yes, it does.....it is a gambit known as false equivalency.
A common way for this fallacy to be perpetrated is one shared trait between two subjects is assumed to show
equivalence, especially in
order of magnitude, when equivalence is not necessarily the logical result.
[2] False equivalence is a common result when an anecdotal similarity is pointed out as equal, but the claim of equivalence doesn't bear because the similarity is based on oversimplification or ignorance of additional factors. The pattern of the fallacy is often as such: "If A is the set of c and d, and B is the set of d and e, then since they both contain d, A and B are equal". d is not required to exist in both sets; only a passing similarity is required to cause this fallacy to be able to be used.
False equivalence arguments are often used in journalism
[3][4] and in politics, where the minor flaws of one candidate may be compared to major flaws of another.
[5]